In addition to the interrogative particle 'ara' in Greek or 'ne' in Latin, a speaker/writer could signal that the expected answer was 'yes', by using instead the particle arou (Greek) or nonne (Latin), or could signal the opposite by using instead the particle (s) 'ara may (αρα μη). They are indicating to us 'how to take the sentence'.
What is particle in the syntax? - English Language & Usage Stack Exchange
I tried to research the difference beween particle and preposition in phrasal verb, but the information on this website is not very clear. According to the website, in "She is making up excuse...
What’s the difference between particulate and particle? Should it be diesel particulates or diesel particles, and why? Could you provide three or more examples where it should use particulate rat...
Fortunately, The Chicago Manual of Style (16th edition) deals with this question on page 388: 8.5 Names with particles. Many names include particles such as de, d', de la, von, van, and ten. Practice with regard to capitalization and spacing the particles varies widely, and confirmation should be sought in a biographical dictionary or other authoritative source. When the surname is used alone ...
Instead, don't appears as a particle of its own, i.e. it cannot be deconstructed any more. The sentence * Why do not you just do it? sounds ungrammatical to me, but Why don't you just do it? seems fine.
Is "don't" a particle of its own? - English Language & Usage Stack Exchange
1 Its syntactic function is either a particle of the verb does or a complement of the verb does. @LPH has mentioned CoGEL says not is a particle, but the book isn't keen to distinguish between the grammatical function and the grammatical category. So they seem to be simply treating not as sort of a minor part of speech.